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Class 12 · Biology · Chapter 3

Reproductive Health: Class 12 Important Questions with Answers

72 important questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3, Reproductive Health, the way they come in the board exam: MCQs, assertion–reason, case-based and short and long answer questions, with answers. Taken from our Class 12 Biology notes for 2026-27.

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Jump to: Practice set: test yourself20 MCQsAssertion–ReasonAnswers to the practice set

Practice set: test yourself

Try every question before looking at the answers below. 64 or more out of 80 means you are ready for the board.

A. Fill in the blanks (1 mark each)

  1. India started a national family planning programme in ______.
  2. Saheli was developed at ______, Lucknow.
  3. Lippes loop is a ______ IUD.
  4. Emergency contraceptives must be used within ______ hours.
  5. MTP is relatively safe up to ______ weeks.
  6. In vasectomy a part of the ______ is cut or tied.
  7. Transfer of embryos of up to 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube is ______.
  8. Injecting a sperm directly into the ovum is ______.

B. True or false? (1 mark each)

  1. Condoms protect against STIs.
  2. Copper ions increase sperm motility.
  3. Lactational amenorrhoea is effective up to six months after delivery.
  4. Genital herpes is completely curable.
  5. Tubectomy prevents ovum formation.
  6. Amniocentesis can detect Down's syndrome.
  7. GIFT involves in vitro fertilisation.
  8. The legal marriageable age for girls in India is 18 years.

C. Very short answer (1 mark each)

  1. Expand RCH.
  2. Name a hormone-releasing IUD.
  3. Name two copper-releasing IUDs.
  4. Expand MMR and IMR.
  5. Name one STI caused by a protozoan.
  6. Which group is most affected by STIs?
  7. Expand ZIFT.
  8. Expand PID.
  9. What is the "test-tube baby" programme?
  10. Name an ART for a male who cannot inseminate.

D. Short answer I (2 marks each)

  1. Give two features of an ideal contraceptive.
  2. How do oral pills prevent pregnancy?
  3. Why is MTP restricted by law in India?
  4. Give two early symptoms of STIs.
  5. Distinguish between ZIFT and IUT.
  6. How do copper IUDs act?
  7. Why are surgical methods called terminal methods?
  8. Why is legal adoption a good option for childless couples?
My score (fill in after checking the answers)
SectionA /8B /8C /10D /16E /18F /20G (bonus)Total /80
My marks

Rough work

E. Short answer II (3 marks each)

  1. Describe three natural methods of contraception and one limitation.
  2. List three complications of untreated STIs.
  3. Describe three measures of the RCH programmes.
  4. Explain IVF and embryo transfer.
  5. Compare vasectomy and tubectomy.
  6. Why is the amniocentesis ban necessary?

F. Long answer (5 marks each)

  1. Describe the various contraceptive methods, with one example and mode of action each.
  2. What is infertility? Describe five assisted reproductive technologies.

G. HOTS (higher-order thinking)

  1. Why are condoms preferred over IUDs for people with many partners?
  2. Why is MTP after 24 weeks dangerous?
  3. Why do many couples still not use ART despite its availability?
  4. How does a falling IMR increase population growth?

20 MCQs

  1. Reproductive health means
    (a) only physical health (b) only freedom from STIs (c) total well-being in all aspects of reproduction (d) only small family
  2. The fertile period avoided in periodic abstinence
    (a) days 10–17 (b) days 1–5 (c) days 20–28 (d) days 5–8
  3. Which is a barrier method?
    (a) CuT (b) vasectomy (c) Saheli (d) diaphragm
  4. Multiload 375 is
    (a) a hormonal pill (b) a copper-releasing IUD (c) a condom (d) an implant
  5. Saheli is
    (a) a daily steroid pill (b) a weekly non-steroidal pill (c) an IUD (d) an injection
  6. Oral pills are taken for
    (a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 28 days (d) 21 days
  7. Emergency contraception works within
    (a) 72 h (b) 24 h (c) 1 week (d) 1 month
  8. In tubectomy the part cut is
    (a) ovary (b) uterus (c) fallopian tube (d) cervix
  9. MTP Act was passed in
    (a) 1951 (b) 2001 (c) 1991 (d) 1971
  10. Which STI is not completely curable?
    (a) gonorrhoea (b) genital herpes (c) syphilis (d) trichomoniasis
  11. Which group shows the highest STI incidence?
    (a) 5–10 (b) 40–50 (c) 15–24 (d) 60+
  12. PID is a complication of
    (a) untreated STIs (b) MTP (c) IUDs only (d) pills
  13. Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred by
    (a) ZIFT (b) IUT (c) GIFT (d) AI
  14. In GIFT the gamete transferred is
    (a) sperm into uterus (b) zygote into uterus (c) ovum into fallopian tube (d) embryo into tube
  15. ICSI is
    (a) insemination into uterus (b) ovum transfer (c) embryo transfer (d) sperm injected into ovum
  16. Amniocentesis is banned for
    (a) sex determination (b) disease detection (c) blood grouping (d) foetal growth
  17. Hormone-releasing IUD
    (a) LNG-20 (b) Lippes loop (c) Cu7 (d) CuT
  18. Vasectomy blocks
    (a) sperm formation (b) urine flow (c) testosterone (d) sperm transport
  19. The legal marriageable age for boys
    (a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 16
  20. Lactational amenorrhoea works because
    (a) sperms are killed (b) implantation is blocked (c) ovulation does not occur (d) the uterus is inactive

1 (c) · 2 (a) · 3 (d) · 4 (b) · 5 (b) · 6 (d) · 7 (a) · 8 (c) · 9 (d) · 10 (b) · 11 (c) · 12 (a) · 13 (b) · 14 (c) · 15 (d) · 16 (a) · 17 (a) · 18 (d) · 19 (b) · 20 (c)

Assertion–Reason (6)

(a) Both true, R explains A. (b) Both true, R does not explain A. (c) A true, R false. (d) A false, R true.

  1. A: Condoms protect against STIs. R: They prevent contact of semen and body fluids with the partner.
  2. A: Copper IUDs are effective contraceptives. R: Cu ions suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity.
  3. A: Surgical methods prevent gamete formation. R: They are terminal methods.
  4. A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned. R: It was misused for female foeticide.
  5. A: GIFT is a type of IVF. R: In GIFT the ovum is transferred into the fallopian tube.
  6. A: All STIs are curable. R: Early detection helps in treatment.

Key: 1 (a) · 2 (a) · 3 (d) · 4 (a) · 5 (d) · 6 (d)

Answers to the practice set

A. 1. 1951 2. CDRI (Central Drug Research Institute) 3. non-medicated 4. 72 5. 12 6. vas deferens 7. ZIFT 8. ICSI

B. 1. T 2. F (suppress) 3. T 4. F 5. F (blocks transport) 6. T 7. F 8. T

C. 1. Reproductive and Child Health Care 2. Progestasert or LNG-20 3. CuT, Cu7 (Multiload 375) 4. maternal mortality rate, infant mortality rate 5. trichomoniasis 6. 15–24 years 7. zygote intra-fallopian transfer 8. pelvic inflammatory disease 9. IVF followed by embryo transfer 10. artificial insemination (AI/IUI)

D. 1. Any two: user-friendly, easily available, effective, reversible, few or no side effects, does not interfere with sexual drive 2. Inhibit ovulation and implantation; alter cervical mucus to retard sperm entry 3. To stop unsafe illegal abortions by quacks and misuse for female foeticide 4. Itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, swellings in the genital region 5. ZIFT: zygote or embryo up to 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube; IUT: embryo of more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus 6. Increase phagocytosis of sperms; Cu ions suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity 7. They permanently end the possibility of pregnancy and are very poorly reversible 8. It gives a home to orphaned and destitute children and avoids costly, uncertain ART

Answers to E, F, G, case study (short, long and HOTS answers, step by step) are in the notes pack

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